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Subscribe!Fri - Jan 23, 2009 : 03:45 pm
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Alma : 13
Okay. I've used various verses from this chapter to prove that we had agency in the pre-earth life, but now I'm questioning myself. Here's the basis:
Verse 3 says this:
And this is the manner after which they were ordained—being acalled and bprepared from the cfoundation of the world according to the dforeknowledge of God, on account of their exceeding faith and good works; in the first place being left to echoose good or evil; therefore they having chosen good, and exercising exceedingly great ffaith, are gcalled with a holy calling, yea, with that holy calling which was prepared with, and according to, a preparatory redemption for such.
I have always believed that this verse meant that people who were called and prepared from the foundation of the earth, on account of their exceeding faith and good works (while in the pre-earth life), being left to choose good or evil (while in the pre-earth life).
However, it doesn't say that. It certainly could mean that, but it doesn't necessarily concretely say that. The only thing mentioned for absolute sure about the pre-earth life is that people were called and prepared "from the foundation of the world" (which I interpret as meaning from the beginning of when the earth was created, which logically means during the time we were in the pre-earth life). It doesn't say that they were left to choose good or evil up there, but could easily mean down here.
The main reason for my questioning is the phrase, "according to the foreknowledge of God". That sentence brings in the possibility that people were prepared and called in the pre-earth life, but due to their good choices here on earth and exercising exceedingly great faith here on earth, according to the foreknowledge of God, they were called during the pre-earth life.
Anyway... Not a huge deal, but I have always thought that this verse has been concrete evidence of moral agency existing in the pre-earth life. I still believe it does exist, but I can't use this verse as concrete evidence of it anymore.
Hmm.... Ah well, onward with indoctrination of truth!
Verse 3 says this:
And this is the manner after which they were ordained—being acalled and bprepared from the cfoundation of the world according to the dforeknowledge of God, on account of their exceeding faith and good works; in the first place being left to echoose good or evil; therefore they having chosen good, and exercising exceedingly great ffaith, are gcalled with a holy calling, yea, with that holy calling which was prepared with, and according to, a preparatory redemption for such.
I have always believed that this verse meant that people who were called and prepared from the foundation of the earth, on account of their exceeding faith and good works (while in the pre-earth life), being left to choose good or evil (while in the pre-earth life).
However, it doesn't say that. It certainly could mean that, but it doesn't necessarily concretely say that. The only thing mentioned for absolute sure about the pre-earth life is that people were called and prepared "from the foundation of the world" (which I interpret as meaning from the beginning of when the earth was created, which logically means during the time we were in the pre-earth life). It doesn't say that they were left to choose good or evil up there, but could easily mean down here.
The main reason for my questioning is the phrase, "according to the foreknowledge of God". That sentence brings in the possibility that people were prepared and called in the pre-earth life, but due to their good choices here on earth and exercising exceedingly great faith here on earth, according to the foreknowledge of God, they were called during the pre-earth life.
Anyway... Not a huge deal, but I have always thought that this verse has been concrete evidence of moral agency existing in the pre-earth life. I still believe it does exist, but I can't use this verse as concrete evidence of it anymore.
Hmm.... Ah well, onward with indoctrination of truth!